Tuesday, October 25, 2011

Discussion on the Keys of Matthew 16.

Revelation 1 depicts Jesus having the "keys" of hell and death. Now, that is another symbolic reference. Being a symbol, and not a material set of keys, Jesus can still possess the "keys" after giving the "keys" to another man. (Jesus is the source of all power and authority and grace.) So, this verse does not rule out Peter possessing the "keys" (in the context meaning the "delegated authority" of the king). Besides, in Rev. 20:1 you'll find an angel also bearing the keys in question.

Interpreting the keys to be the "Gospel Message" to unlock the door to salvation to gentiles is valid on one level of interpretation. But that doesn't displace or contradict the interpretation of the keys as a symbol of Kingly authority and empowerment. Scripture usually has multiple levels of meaning and this is no exception.


The primary interpretation of the keys Jesus gave to Peter is: Kingly authority and power to lead and protect the King's people. The Davidic Kingdom was ruled by a king (duh). The king had a cabinet of ministers to take care of the day to day matters and the prime minister was the king's visier or vicar, vested with the king's power and authority by the king himself. The vicar was not a usurper, or "instead of" the king, he was doing the king's will. Isaiah 22:20ff describe the power and purpose of a Davidic King's conferral of the keys to his vicar. The vicar is described as being a "father" to the inhabitants of the kingdom (v 21). He has kingly authority to rule (v22). He is honored in that office (v23-24). (V25 refers to the end of time, the consummation, when the earthly aspect of the Church is no longer relevant.) Incidentally, you can see how God deals with unfaithful, corrupt vicars in verses 15-19. (The few evil popes in history were likewise dealt with.)

Matt 16:13ff parallel/fulfill that scene/prophecy in Isaiah. The fulfillment/transformation/perfection of the Davidic Covenant/Kingdom is the Church that Jesus built on the foundation of the Apostles. It resembles the Davidic Kingdom in certain ways, such as the King & ministers. David's Kingdom was the Kingdom of God manifested on earth. Just so, the New Covenant Church is the Kingdom of God manifested on earth and it features a visible hierarchical structure. Jesus vested in the Apostles judgeship of the Kingdom (Luke 22:29,30), the Church. This would be fatherly caretaking/disciplining, not despotic rulership.

Addendum December 14, 2012...
Besides Isaiah22, There are two other OT precedents for the concept of a king giving his authority to a guy... Joseph was empowered by Pharaoh to rule his kingdom (Gen 41:40ff); Daniel was given similar authority (Daniel 2). Notice also that the king/pharaoh first recognized that God, not man, gave them the knowledge they had. Considering these two pericopes along with Isaiah22, how can any one deny that King Jesus likewise empowered a man to be a visible leader, a "father", to His children on earth?
End Addendum.

While all Christians receive the Holy Spirit, Peter is the ONLY man to whom Jesus gave "keys". This does not usurp the Holy Spirit, it manifests the Spirit's power. In conjunction with that, John 21:15-17 (showing Jesus commanding Peter to care for His flock), leads us to conclude that Peter held a unique office as Christ's vicar on earth. And a plentitude of Scriptural evidence shows Peter performing the duties of such an office (Acts 1 - 15). The council of Jerusalem shows Peter speaking defitively. James merely supported Peter's directive. Selecting a successor to Judas demonstrates Apostolic succession. Peter is first to speak the Gospel to the world. Peter works the first healing of the apostles. Peter exercises the power Jesus delegated, in dealing with Ananias and Sapphira. His very shadow conveys God's grace to heal. Peter is first to teach salvation for Gentiles as well as Jews. ad infinitum... (And we realize these things illustrate the power of the office of Vicar, not any quality of the man himself, who was a sinner like all of us.)

Since King Jesus ascended to His throne in Heaven, His vicar (& his successor today) on earth, guided by the Spirit, shepherds/teaches/guards the earthly flock (ie John21:15-17, fulfilling Jeremiah 3:15) and leads/upholds the Apostles (& their successors today) (Luke22:31-32). 

The Holy Spirit is not the vicar on earth, He is the soul of the Church. In John 15:26 Jesus was speaking to the Apostles (they are the ministers of the King). After Jesus ascended, the Spirit would guide the Apostles to all truth and remind them of everything Jesus taught them. In this way they would be able to infallibly preach the Gospel to the world and prepare men to succeed them.

All believers have the indwelling of the Spirit but not all to the same effect, not all believers have the same role in the Kingdom (1Cor12) . The Apostles were made leaders of the infant Church and they appointed successors & expansions of that Bishopric office (ie Matthias, Titus, Timothy).

Some mention Romans 1:15 to imply that Peter did not go to Rome. However, it is widely accepted that Paul was at Rome with Peter and they were both martyred there. There is plenty of historical and archaeological evidence supporting that idea. I'm sure there was plenty of evangelizing to do in Rome without Paul usurping Peter's authority as Bishop of Rome and Vicar of Christ.

The Gospel Message is indeed the focus of Scripture. And the mechanism Jesus set up, by which that message is spread and protected, is a visible, organized society, not just a spiritual association. Salvation History demonstrates that God uses flawed, sinful men to accomplish His flawless, holy plan.



Friday, October 21, 2011

Allah... the God of Abraham?

So, the Koran says God has no children and that Allah is the God of Abraham. But this contradicts pre-existing, established, Scripture. Genesis describes God creating the universe and becoming a father to a man (and, by extension, his offspring the whole human race).

Adam was made "in our image and likeness" (Gen 1:26-27, 5:1). This means Adam was God's son and so God was Adam's Father (because Gen 5:3 describes Adam fathering a son "in his image and likeness").

Before Adam and Eve sinned they were God's children, with eternal life, and the world had no suffering or bloodshed or death. Their first sin brought those things into the world, causing it to become the violent place as we know it. This also caused an unfathomable and humanly unbridgable rift between God and mankind. (This was an infinite debt.) They lost the divine sonship for themselves and their descendants. But even back then God hinted at humankind's future redemption (Gen 3:15). That hint was fulfilled with the coming of Jesus, God's only-begotten and true son.

That's how much God loves us, His lowly creatures. First He loved us into existance and then he saved us from ourselves, through his own Son Jesus, sacrificed in order to pay the infinite debt we owed to Him. The sacrifice of this God-Man Jesus bridged the gulf that kept us away from almighty all-righteous God. Once again humans can claim the original status of sonship to God, which was lost to us by Adam. When we accept Jesus as our mediator with God and payment for our sins, we become God's child, by adoption, and He becomes our Father. Because of this, we get to spend eternity in Heaven. To die without sonship to God is to spend eternity separated from Him.

God is a true Father. Scripture, which predates the Koran, describes God fathering His family from Creation (Genesis) to Redemption (Gospels) to Final Sanctification and Consummation (Revelation).

Since Allah, as described by the Koran, does not match the God described in Genesis, I can only conclude that Allah is not, after all, the God of Abraham.

Wednesday, July 20, 2011

The Roman Catholic Mass

Mr Bennett's view on the Mass is expounded in this article:
http://www.bereanbeacon.org/articles/sorted/01_On_Catholicism/The_Cross_and_the_Mass.pdf


I can give no better refutation than what can be accomplished by pointing you to works which manifestly destroy Mr Bennett's position on this issue. Mr Bennett doesn't consider Scripture as a whole in his exegesis of the parts he discusses.  When you put the Last Supper in it's proper context, (Passover and the rest of salvation history and understand it as the Jews did) you can see that Christ does indeed miraculously change the bread and wine into His body and blood.

Eucharist, Holy Meal:
http://zuserver2.star.ucl.ac.uk/~vgg/rc/aplgtc/hahn/m4/ech.html

The Lamb's Supper: The Holy Sacrifice of the Mass:
http://zuserver2.star.ucl.ac.uk/~vgg/rc/aplgtc/hahn/m5/lmbsp.html

The Fourth Cup: The Sacrament of the Eucharist:
http://zuserver2.star.ucl.ac.uk/~vgg/rc/aplgtc/hahn/m4/4cp.html

The Lamb's Supper: The Bible and the Mass:
This article demonstrates how the Mass is straight from Scripture...
http://www.salvationhistory.com/studies/courses/online/the_lambs_supper_the_bible_and_the_mass

Monday, July 18, 2011

King James Version Only? (KJV-, KJB-Only?)

First of all, I like the KJB (and  the Douay-Rheims Bible), because of the language. Once I learned how to understand the "archaic" English phrases, it seems to convey meaning better. For example, "thou" and "ye". They're the same except "thou" and "thee" are singular (referring to one person) and "ye" and "you" are plural (referring to all in a group). This is an important distinction. For example, Jesus said to Peter "And I will give unto thee the keys" Mattt16:19. Only Peter got the keys. But, "Whatsoever ye shall bind on earth shall be bound in heaven" Matt 18:18. Here, all the apostles received the authority to forgive sins and reconcile sinners with the Church. Modern English versions have "you" in both places. While it's true that considering the context can determine the singularity or plurality of "you", I find that understanding comes more readily,  and there is less misunderstanding, when thou and ye are used.

The KJV-Only folks referred me to this book Which Version Is the Bible? to provide evidence supporting the KJV as THE Bible in English (by which they mean it is the only infallible English bible), so I read it and here's my review. (But don't trust me, read it yourself and research my assertions. Follow up all references given by authors (if they don't give references, don't trust them). References I've used are at the end of this article.)

Which Version Is the Bible? by Floyd Nolen Jones.

My notes are below.  To summarize my conclusions: These translation differences are not so bad as Dr Jones is saying. The interpretation problems which might result from the "bad" translations he compares are negated by proper Scriptural exegesis (ie consider all of Scripture when interpreting any small part of Scripture), even in the paradigm of Sola-Scriptura. In the paradigm of Catholicism, Dr Jones' fears are totally invalid because the teaching authority of the Apostolic successors would prevent faulty interpretation.



"To The Reader - The Sounding of an Alarm"


In Isaiah 14 the primary use of "heosphoros" (literally "light bearer", variously translated as "Lucifer" or "morning" or "day star") is as metaphor, applied to the King of Babylon as preeminent among the princes of his time.  Isaiah 13 helps set this context. The secondary meaning of Isaiah 14 can be applying it to Satan. Dr Jones seems to think it can be fatal to the faith if "Lucifer" is not tied to Satan in this verse, but even without using the word "Lucifer", we can still apply this passage to Satan, when guided by the Church's teaching.

Dr Jones takes issue with translations not using "Lucifer".  But "lucifer" is not primarily a name, instead it's a description, "light bearer" or "bringer of light" or "shining one". It has become a name for Satan over time. Being Latin, why insist that "Lucifer" to be only valid translation to the English, since the Vulgate was considered a "corrupt" translation?  But it didn't come from the Greek, it came from the Hebrew.

"lucifer" was used by Jerome in the Vulgate in several places besides Isaiah 14 (see Lucifer in Catholic Encyclopedia).

Latin Lucifer ~ Greek heosphoros ἑωσφόρος ~ Hebrew helel

Strong's H1984 definition of "halal"
make boast self, celebrate, commend, deal, make, foolish glory, give light, be make, A primitive root; to be clear (orig. Of sound, but usually of color); to shine; hence, to make a show, to boast; and thus to be (clamorously) foolish; to rave; causatively, to celebrate; also to stultify -- (make) boast (self), celebrate, commend, (deal, make), fool(- ish, -ly), glory, give (light), be (make, feign self) mad (against), give in marriage, (sing, be worthy of) praise, rage, renowned, shine.


heosphoros found in these places:

ἑωσφόρος  in Job 11:17;   KJV "morning"; D-RV "day star"; RSV "morning"; NIV "morning"

ἑωσφόρου in Psalm 110:3; KJV "morning"; D-RV "day star"; RSV "morning"; NIV "morning"

ἑωσφόρος in Isaiah 14:12; KJV "Lucifer"; D-RV "Lucifer"; RSV "day star"; NIV "morning star"


Section "A BIBLICAL CREDIBILITY CRISIS "

This section is generally reasonable.

Dr Jones states "Before accepting the conclusions of a particular textual critic, one should evaluate
both his theological presuppositions and criteria."  This is sound advice. This concept means we are all guided by a certain tradition of interpretation (whether we admit it or not). Catholics are quick to admit they follow a certain tradition, which they call "Sacred Tradition" or "Apostolic Tradition" (meaning it's a tradition guided by the Spirit).


Section PRESERVATION OR RESTORATION?

Dr Jones submits that in OT days the Levitical priesthood was responsible for copying and thus preserving the "Living Words of God" infallibly. This makes sense so far. But he declares that the Masoretic Text (the oldest example being from c900 AD) is the true text because it is from the Levites, whereas the Dead Sea Scrolls (more than a thousand years older) are from the Essenes (non-Levites) and therefore can't be the true text.  The problem with his logic is that since Christ came and transferred the priesthood to all believers (except the pastoral, ministerial aspect) the Levitical priesthood is obsolete. So, when the Jewish Levites after Christ copied Scripture they would not have necessarily been guided infallibly. Therefore, the Masoretic Text cannot be counted on to be pure (which Dr Jones counts on).  Dr Jones then declares the Septuagint (LXX) to be spurious because of the differences compared to the Masoretic Text "As the Hebrew Masoretic text is the inerrant, infallible Word of God  – the Septuagint should be seen as spurious and rejected.".  He further states "We cannot even be certain that the LXX which we have extant today (c.350 A.D.) is a faithful reproduction of the c.260 B.C. original."  It's interesting he says this because this is my conclusion concerning the Masoretic Text because the age of the earliest example means almost a thousand years since the last legitimate priest copied it.  I wouldn't hold the Masoretic Text to be the pure one, as far as his logic is concerned.

Dr Jones next informs us of the care and dedication of the "early Christians" who copied the Scriptures. He fails to mention that these men were Catholic monks and priests and brothers.

He quotes 2Cor 2:17 "For we are not as many, which corrupt the word of God ". He says this indicates that there was trouble with the purity of the Bible text.  But I don't think Paul was talking about ink on paper, but instead the teachings of God which Paul preached.
Dr Jones always treats the phrase "the word of God" to mean ink on paper. That seems erroneous to me. Scripture never says the word of God is limited to the written form.

[Sola Scriptura-based ramblings]...

"The real issue here is that of authority."  He's absolutely right. He says scholars and teachers and the pope or the head of one's denomination get in between the layman and God. In the paradigm of Sola Scriptura, this might be true. But, in the paradigm of Christ establishing His Church to be the primary means to spread and protect His teachings, these scholars and teachers and pope are instead enablers of our deeper understanding of Scripture.

Since we don't have the original MSS God must have either: a) in Sola-Scriptura-World, God ensured infallible reproduction of the written word or b) in Authoritative-Church-World God ensured the infallible transmission of the teachings via Scripture and Tradition. Scripture translations and interpretations would be guided by Tradition. The authoritative body would be infallible in these matters and the written Word would be protected from serious flaws by it.  In the case of a), the Christian should find out if he has THE correct translation in his language. He then has to depend on others to give him information he'll use to decide this. He will thus be accepting something non-Scripture to tell him what is Scripture. (It seems to me Sola Scriptura is illogical for this reason.)  In the case of b), the Christian can rest assured that they are getting God's Word, even if there were NO bibles in the world, through the teaching authority Christ established.



BIBLICAL COMPARISONS

Dr Jones presents numerous verse comparisons and bemoans the "danger" of the non-KJ translations. But the different translations do not really have such severe theological implications as he says or implies. In Sola-Scriptura-World there is a chance he might be right, but in Authoritative-Church-World he is definitely wrong because the successors to the Apostles lead us in the correct interpretations.

[Here's a great parallel NT site: http://www.greeknewtestament.com/index.htm
showing several Greek, Latin, and several English translations.]

[TR = Textus Receptus   BM=Byzantine Majority]

He compares three "modern" translations. He doesn't examine the Douay-Reims Version (D-RV), which is extremely similar to the KJV.


Col 1:14
Even though "through his blood" is missing in the "other" translations, this is does not have a serious doctrinal impact because there's plenty of other Scripture telling us that the blood of Jesus spilt is what saves us. Without that sacrifice our sins would not be paid for.
D-RV agrees with KJV, despite the Alexandrian text differing from the TR and BM.

1Tim 3:16
Where KJV has "God was" and the other protestant English bible have "He who was", the D-RV has "which was". This seems to correspond to the Alexandrian text, where the TR and BM have "God was". Despite this difference the D-RV is interpreted identically with the KJV which is to say God became man, etc.

Isaiah 7:14


Matt 1:25
He takes Matt 1:25 to mean Mary and Joseph had children after Jesus. He doesn't consider that "firstborn" is more a title than a description, in the Jewish culture. The firstborn son is consecrated to God (Ex 13:2) and is the default heir to the father's wealth and status. Jesus is the "firstborn" of God the Father, as well as of Mary and Joseph.  The phrase "till" here does not mean "not before the birth of the firstborn and then she had sex". It means up to that time and forevermore. Another example: "Sit on my right hand till I make thy enemies thy footstool."
Translation Differences: D-RV agrees with KJV here. The Alexandrian differs from the TR and BM which are the same.
 
Matt 4:10.
Dr Jones' issue here has to do with translating the greek word for worship. He doesn't like the translations to use "bowing down" for "worshipping".   I'm no linguistic expert, but I agree here in that this is related to Catholic honoring of saintly statues and relics. A Catholic might be kneeling, or even bowing, in front of a statue of Mary while seeking her intercession but this isn't worship. It is paying respect and honor, but not adoration.  (In Japanese culture people bow to eachother. They're not worshipping eachother, they are paying respect.)
Translation Differences: D-RV agrees with KJV here.  The Alexandrian and TR are the same, where the Byzantine Majority is a little different.

Matt6:13.
"For Thine is the kingdom...": This is not originally Scripture but part of the liturgy, basically present in the Didache. More:
http://wdtprs.com/blog/2011/02/quaeritur-why-is-the-protestant-for-the-kingdom-the-power-the-glory-in-our-catholic-mass/
Translation Differences: D-RV differs with KJV here. The Alexandrian differs from the TR and BM which are all the same.
Dr Jones says the RCC omits this because it contradicts her teaching that the millenial reign is figurative (not literal 1000 years on earth). Dr Jones then misrepresents what the RCC teaches on this. The RCC teaches that the millienial Kingdom began when Jesus was enthroned in Heaven. (Not because "the Pope is ruling on the throne in the Vatican State in Christ's stead"). It is the Church Age. The RCC doesn't teach that all people will be converted. (But they would if they accepted Jesus).  The Church is indeed the New Israel. It is the New Covenant transformation and perfection of the Old Covenant people of God, Israel.  National Israel is no longer His chosen people. Christians, forming His Church, are.  Israel was God's Firstborn Son (Exodus). Like so many other Firstborn Sons who lost their inheritance (ie Esau), Israel gave up it's birthright, by rejecting the Savior whom God sent.

Matt 19:17.
D-RV says "17 Who said to him: Why do you ask me concerning good? One is good, God. But if you will enter into life, keep the commandments."
Either translation makes sense when you look at the question He was answering: " Good master, what good shall I do that I may have life everlasting?"

Mark 1:2-3.
There's no doctrinal misunderstanding here. Knowledge of OT, and guidance of the Church, would negate any misinterpretation which Dr Jones fears.

Mark 9:43-44
D-RV is same as KJV.  Verse 44 is not present in Alexandrian Text. Vulgate has it.






Origen:
typical allegations against him... further research is warranted...
-source of the adulteration of Holy Writ (ie Hexapla)
-castrated himself(?) and went barefoot for heavenly rewards
-didn't believe in divinity of Jesus (gnostic?)


Dr Jones cites Hislop's The Two Babylons in describing the supposed pagan roots of Catholic ritualism and traditions. But Hislop's book has been shown to be vastly erroneous. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/The_Two_Babylons
http://www.catholic.com/library/Is_Catholicism_Pagan.asp



=========================

Other References & Links to related information:

A Baptist Minister's view on the issue:
http://www.hickoryhammockbaptist.org/booklets/kjv.html

Tyndale & English Bibles...http://www.catholicapologetics.info/apologetics/general/charge.htm

KJV, "Pure Cambridge Edition", self-professed to be the ONLY correct edition of THE Bible in English (KJV-Onlyists say "KJV is THE Bible in English", even within the KJV-Only camp there is division).
(This guy is so zealous for KJV-PCE that he burns other versions he isn't happy with, on the basis that they defile the Word of God.) Nevertheless, this online bible is very handy.
http://www.jesus-is-lord.com/thebible.htm

Wikipedia article on KJV:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Authorized_King_James_Version#CITEREFDaniell2003

A Catholic Parallel Bible (Greek/English/Latin):
http://www.newadvent.org/bible/gen001.htm

Parallel Old Testament (Hebrew/Latin/Multiple English):
http://www.hebrewoldtestament.com/

Parallel New Testament (Multiple Greek/Latin/Multiple English):
http://www.greeknewtestament.com/

Friday, March 25, 2011

Salvation and the Sacraments

Mr Bennett's article, "Salvation and the Sacraments":
http://www.bereanbeacon.org/articles/sorted/01_On_Catholicism/Salvation_and_the_Sacraments.pdf

This article begins by describing his understanding of the concept of "justification".  I pointed out his errors on that in my blog entry http://americanberean.blogspot.com/2010/12/salvation-gods-graciousness-in-christ.html.

Now, on to the Sacraments.  Mr Bennett believes they are merely rituals of men which blaspheme God by claiming Godly power to dispense grace. But they are more than empty rituals and do convey grace (by God's power, not man's).  The catechism describes them as "outward signs instituted by Christ to give grace".   I think it was Augustine who called them "visible signs of an invisible reality".   As Scott Hahn summarized it:  "The sacraments are God's tools for our sanctification. They are not magical and they are not mechanical. They are powerful because Christ is the one who has instituted them because Christ is the sacrament. Christ is the oath that God has sworn for our salvation. "

Here's a good summary of the Sacraments:
http://www.jesuschristsavior.net/Sacraments.html

Here's the Catholic Encyclopedia on the Sacraments:
http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/13295a.htm.

Here's a summary description of the system of Sacraments:
http://www.davidmacd.com/catholic/sacraments_sacramentals.htm

Scott Hahn lectures on the Sacraments:
http://zuserver2.star.ucl.ac.uk/~vgg/rc/aplgtc/hahn/m5/Mod5.html

Mr Bennett doesn't believe the Church of Jesus possesses a world-wide, visible, organized aspect.  It's natural, then, that he doesn't accept the idea of God's spiritual grace being distributed through material means.   But when one accepts the material aspect of the Church along with the spiritual aspect, sacraments are obviously part and parcel of God's management of His kingdom. Look at Jesus (and ourselves, as well): He possesses material and spiritual aspects.  So does His Church and so do the Sacraments.  This article describes the visible vs. the invisible Church: http://www.davidmacd.com/catholic/vatican_says_protestants_not_churches.htm.

The New Covenant is the fulfillment, transformation and perfection of the Old Covenant.  The Old Covenant included verbal oaths ( greek: orchia; latin: sacramentum) between God and men.  Good things were promised for obedience and curses for disobedience. The men (ie Adam, Noah, Abraham, Moses, David) failed to live up to their side of the covenants, thus bringing down curses upon the people of God.  But God always promised a redeemer.  Eventually, God accepted the curses of disobedience upon Himself by allowing his only begotten son to be tortured and killed despite His innocence.  In this way, He redeemed all who call upon His name for salvation.  So Jesus Himself is a sacrament (oath); actually THE sacrament from which all the other sacraments get their power.

Even rituals of the Old Covenant can have their perfect New Covenant fulfillment.  For example, the Old Covenant Passover finds its fulfillment, transformation and perfection in the ritual instituted at the Last Supper.  Here Jesus instituted the Sacrament of the Holy Eucharist.  The event was a Passover meal which required, at the end, consuming a sacrificial lamb.  There was no baby sheep present in the upper room.  Jesus is known as the Lamb of God.  Jesus said (to paraphrase) "take this and eat it, this is my body, this is my blood, do this in memory of me", referring to the bread and wine and its consumption.   These four points, along with the "bread of life" discourse in John 6, and numerous Old Testament pre-figurements (ie Melchizedek), lead to the inescapable conclusion that the bread and wine became His true flesh and blood (even though it's not detectable to our material senses).   Three lectures by Scott Hahn really shed light on the Eucharist (these are each stand-alone, not dependent on each other):

The Lamb's Supper:
http://zuserver2.star.ucl.ac.uk/~vgg/rc/aplgtc/hahn/m5/lmbsp.html
The Fourth Cup:
http://zuserver2.star.ucl.ac.uk/~vgg/rc/aplgtc/hahn/m4/4cp.html

The Meal of Melchizedek:
http://zuserver2.star.ucl.ac.uk/~vgg/rc/aplgtc/hahn/m4/ech.html


John's Gospel is replete with "sacramental" actions.  John calls the Jesus' actions "signs". Those actions both symbolized (being visible signs) and caused the transmission of grace to heal.    http://www.salvationhistory.com/documents/scripture/04_Hahn_9-12.pdf



---

Baptism:

Mr Bennett states "Faith is so indispensable that though one be baptized yet believes not, he shall be damned. The sinner is condemned because of his sin nature and his personal sin.  God’s divine justice is upon him, nothing can propitiate God’s justice but saving faith in Christ."

He's right. And that is what Catholicism teaches.  Nothing matters if we have not faith in the first place.  But he goes on "This faith by God grace brings instantly God’s act of justification."  Yes and No.  If we died right then, we'd get in to heaven.  But if we continued on in this world but refused to be baptized while knowing we should be, we'd no longer have that justification.  Baptism is not a mere act of obedience.  It is the New Covenant fulfillment, transformation and perfection of the Old Covenant sign, circumcision.  That circumcision has been transformed in to a new ritual which is more than symbol. It brings about true spiritual cleansing. The outward signs of water on the person (whether full immersion or sprinkling) and the invocation of the Father, Son and Holy Spirit together are the cause and indication that God's Sanctifying grace is poured in to that person.  The ritual is the cause, not by the ritual's inherent power (which is none, of course), but by the reason that that is how Jesus told us to initiate the believer into the family of God and so He uses that ritual to be the moment He infuses His sanctifying grace into the new family member.  Then he is justified,  made righteous, due to God's life now in him.


It is because of this true cleansing/regenerating effect that babies are baptized and the stain of the sin of Adam (Original Sin) is removed from them, thus justifying them.   They are brought in to God's family by this efficacious ritual.  Later in life that child will decide whether or not to remain in God's family. 

The New Covenant's Baptism also supercedes John's Baptism.  His was a baptism of repentance and the washing in water was just a sign of the person's faith and repentance. 
With the coming of Christ the Holy Spirit is now available to indwell all believers.  The New Baptism is a sign which is used by God to make us His children.  Upon our baptism the spirit indwells us and God declares to the world "This is my son (or daughter)."  This can happen to the infant who is baptized even without their having declared Jesus their savior.  But for anyone capable of discerning a choice, he must have faith, and believe, for baptism to save him.


Summary of Scriptural and Patristic references to baptism:
http://www.scripturecatholic.com/baptism.html


Scott Hahn on Baptism:
http://zuserver2.star.ucl.ac.uk/~vgg/rc/aplgtc/hahn/m5/scmnt3.html

Why Baptize Babies?:
http://www.davidmacd.com/catholic/infant_baptism.htm

Church Fathers on Infant Baptism:
http://www.cin.org/users/jgallegos/infant.htm

Church Fathers on Born Again:
http://www.cin.org/users/jgallegos/borna.htm

Church Fathers on Triune formula, immersion/sprinkling, etc.:
http://www.cin.org/users/jgallegos/tribap.htm

Catholic Encyclopedia:
http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/02258b.htm


---
Confirmation:

When we are old enough to choose our destiny (ie to follow Jesus or not) we are "confirmed" through the laying-on of hands by our bishop.  The sacrament results in the full outpouring of the Holy Spirit into us to strengthen us as we grow into young men and women and become more involved in the wide world.  We need the extra grace we receive through this sacrament to be effective soldiers of Christ in the spiritual warfare of this fallen world.

Think of this as the Catholic version of the "Altar Call" of the evangelical Christians.
The recipient of this Sacrament publicly proclaims his accepting Jesus by his coming up to the altar where the bishop will lay his hands upon him and anoint him with oil.  Sound familiar?  Scripture abounds with events of laying on hands and anointing with oil.

Tim Sullivon describes Confirmation, providing the Old and New Testament context for the present doctrine:
http://www.ewtn.com/library/CATECHSM/CONFIRM1.HTM

The Catholic Encyclopedia:
http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/04215b.htm

Summary of Scriptural and Patristic references to confirmation:
http://www.scripturecatholic.com/confirmation.html

Scott Hahn on Confirmation:
http://zuserver2.star.ucl.ac.uk/~vgg/rc/aplgtc/hahn/m5/scmnt3.html


---

Eucharist:

I described this in a paragraph above, for the purpose of illustrating a reality of the New Covenant.  Here are some more supporting links:

Here is a video rebuttal of Mr Bennett on the Eucharist, by :
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=QUoah7McAvI


Summary of Scriptural and Patristic references:
http://www.scripturecatholic.com/the_eucharist.html

Real Presence:
http://www.davidmacd.com/catholic/eucharist.htm

Church Fathers on the Real Presence:
http://www.cin.org/users/jgallegos/realp.htm

Church Fathers on Transubstantiation:
http://www.cin.org/users/jgallegos/trans.htm

The Catholic Encyclopedia:
http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/05572c.htm

---

Penance (or Reconciliation or Confession):

Christ empowered (indeed, commanded) His ministers to forgive sins in His name (John 20:19-23).   James 5:16 tells us to confess our sins to another.   Proverbs 28:13 states "He who conceals his sins does not prosper, but whoever confesses and renounces them finds mercy."   This is all what this sacrament is all about.   Jesus gave us this sacrament so a believer who has fallen in to mortal sin can have a means to come back to His family.  John mentions  mortal sins and venial sins in 1John 5:16-17 "If anyone sees his brother sinning, if the sin is not deadly, he should pray to God and he will give him life. This is only for those whose sin is not deadly. There is such a thing as deadly sin, about which I do not say that you should pray.  All wrongdoing is sin, but there is sin that is not deadly."  So, deadly (mortal) sin (which is intentional and serious) separates us from our inheritance, but non-deadly (venial) sin does not.

We are called to confess our sins and ask forgiveness, not just once, at the time of our "salvation moment" when we first call to Jesus to save our soul, but for every sin we commit after that salvation moment.   We all are still sinners, some of us to the extent that we evict the Holy Spirit from ourselves (through mortal sin).  Proverbs 28:13 is apt here.   The non-mortal (venial) sins we commit don't sever our relationship with God, but do harm us spiritually.  With unrepented & unconfessed venial sins in our hearts, we are more susceptible to temptation and can sin in progressively more serious ways.  It can be a snowball effect, or a slippery slope, with the end result of mortal sin and loss of our inheritance.  But by regularly repenting  of, and confessing, even our venial sins, we grow in Spirit and become more resistant to temptations thus preventing any potential sin-snowball effect.


Call no Man Father?:
http://www.davidmacd.com/catholic/priests_forgive_sins_call_no_man_father.htm

A "Punishing" God?:
http://www.davidmacd.com/catholic/punishment.htm

Scripture and Church fathers:
http://www.scripturecatholic.com/confession.html

Holy Healing:
http://zuserver2.star.ucl.ac.uk/~vgg/rc/aplgtc/hahn/m5/scmnt5.html

Catholic Encyclopedia:
http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/11618c.htm

---

Anointing of the Sick (aka Extreme Unction):

This sacrament is for the seriously ill person.  It provides healing of the soul and sometimes healing of the body.  The following links provide the description and Scriptural origin.  (Unction just means the act of anointing).


Scripture and Church fathers:
http://www.scripturecatholic.com/anointing_of_the_sick.html

Holy Healing:
http://zuserver2.star.ucl.ac.uk/~vgg/rc/aplgtc/hahn/m5/scmnt5.html


Catholic Encyclopedia:
http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/05716a.htm

---

Matrimony:

Yes, the marriage event is a sacrament.   This is the New Covenant fulfillment, transformation and perfection of the Old Covenant "creation ordinance", as Mr Bennett calls it.  Christian marriage is a covenant and has God as the bonding agent and helper, providing the grace the man and woman need to have a good marriage.   Assuming Christ established a visible, organized Church (which Mr Bennett does not), one can see that the Church would then be the authority to guide Christians in the matters of marriage.   Without an authority to pronounce definitively on such matters, Christians will tend to interpret Scripture as they see fit (consciously or not) in order to justify their behavior in their marriage.  Honest, sincere Christians often have opposing interpretations of Scripture (in general as well as in marriage matters), despite each claiming to be led be the Spirit in their interpretation.  Mr Bennett is just another person claiming the true interpretation.  He claims the Catholic Church contradicts Scripture in her teachings and manipulations of her followers' marriages yet gives no examples of un-Scriptural doctrines.   The Catholic Church does not base the whole marriage-sacrament doctrine on the one verse found in Eph 5:32.  The sacramental nature of marriage is found from the beginning of Scripture (Genesis) to the end (Revelation).   Here's Fulton Sheen writing on this sacrament:

Marriage: A Symbol of the Nuptials of Christ and the Church

Marriage as a sacrament belongs to an entirely different order than the 
mere union of man and woman through a civil contract. It basically 
regards a husband and wife as symbols of another marriage; namely, the 
nuptials of Christ and His Church.

The analogy of the heavenly nuptials goes back to the Old Testament, 
where God appears as the bridegroom, and Israel appears as the bride. 
When God becomes incarnate in Christ, He called Himself, and was 
called, the Bridegroom; it is the new Israel, or the Church, which be-
comes His bride or His spouse. It is often forgotten that our Blessed 
Lord called Himself a Bridegroom. When Our Lord was asked why the dis-
ciples of John fasted, but His own did not, He answered: "Can you 
expect the men of the bridegroom's company to go fasting, while the 
bridegroom is still with them? As long as they have the bridegroom with 
them, they cannot be expected to fast" (Mark 2:19). John the Baptist 
called himself "the friend of the bridegroom," or what might be, in 
modern language, the "best man." The title of Bridegroom, which 
belonged to Christ, was shared by no other, as John himself said: "The 
bride is for the bridegroom; but the bridegroom's friend, who stands by 
and listens to him, rejoices too, rejoices at hearing the bridegroom's 
voice" (John 3:29).

On the other hand, the wife's relationship to the husband is the rela-
tionship of the Church to Christ. That is why when St. Paul speaks of 
marriage he says, "Those words are a high mystery...applying...to 
Christ and His Church" (Eph. 5:32). The ultimate consummation of this 
espousal of Christ and His Church will be after the resurrection, when 
the Church "without spot or wrinkle" will appear as a bride adorned for 
her husband or as the "spouse of the Lamb" (Apoc 21:2, 9:1, 22:17).

The Sacrament of Matrimony is not a pious extra added to the marriage 
contract; it is rather the elevation of a natural marriage contract to 
the order of grace, in which the husband loves the wife, as Christ 
loves the Church, and the wife loves the husband as the Church loves 
Christ. The husband and wife are not just a symbol of the union of 
Christ and the Church; they enjoy a real participation in that union. 
As Christ lives in the Church and the Church in Christ, so the husband 
lives in the wife and the wife in the husband, and the two are in one 
flesh.
 
...


As further evidence of how seriously the Church takes marriage as the 
symbol of Christ and the Church, St. Thomas Aquinas makes a distinction 
between a marriage that is merely ratified at the altar, and a marriage 
that is ratified and consummated, when husband and wife become two in 
one flesh. The Church has always made this distinction in her Canon Law 
concerning marriage. A marriage that is merely ratified at the altar, 
but not consummated, represents the union of Christ with the soul 
through grace. A marriage ratified at the altar and consummated in the 
marriage act symbolizes the union of Christ and the Church.

The marriage that is ratified only, is a symbol of a personal union of 
the soul with Christ through grace. This union can be broken by sin. 
If, therefore, a husband and wife separated immediately after the 
marriage at the church door, and never consummated their marriage, that 
marriage would be breakable under certain conditions, because it is 
only the symbol of the union of the soul and grace. But the marriage 
bond of a baptized husband and wife which has been consummated is 
absolutely unbreakable, as the union of Christ and the Church is 
unbreakable.

The rest of his commentary can be found here: http://www.ewtn.com/library/DOCTRINE/SACRAMEN.TXT

Going on Vocation:
http://zuserver2.star.ucl.ac.uk/~vgg/rc/aplgtc/hahn/m5/scmnt6.html

Church Fathers on Matrimony:
http://www.cin.org/users/jgallegos/marry.htm

Catholic Encyclopedia:
http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/09707a.htm

---

Holy Orders:

Christ instituted this sacrament to empower men to perform the priestly duties (such as pastoring the believers, and offering the Covenant Renewal event, aka the Eucharistic meal) He delegated to them.  He would depart from Earth to ascend to Heaven in order that he might send his Holy Spirit down to us.  Thenceforth the Spirit was available to indwell God's children and guide us, to guide us not just as a non-material entity interfacing directly to our minds & souls, but also (perhaps primarily?) through corporeal means, through men He blesses and empowers with His authority to preach and teach His truths.  These men do not replace Christ in His office of High Priest. He is indeed the last and forever and only High Priest.  His priesthood is not transferred to men, but instead, He delegates some of his authority  and the power to exercise such authority in His name. (Because His body is in Heaven.)

Here's how Fulton Sheen begins his description of this sacrament:

Because man lives in a society of free men, there must be some 
government and order to make justice prevail. Since there is the order 
of grace above creature, it too must have degrees, order, hierarchy, 
and government; this Christ supplied in the Sacrament of Holy Orders 
with its three ascending levels of deaconship, priesthood, and 
episcopacy.

Our Blessed Lord is the Mediator between God and Man, being both God 
and man. But in order to meditate His redemption, He desires human 
instruments between Himself and the world, each of whom will be "the 
minister and dispenser of the Mysteries of God" (I Corinth. 4:1). And 
so, some men are appointed by God to deliver the sacraments to others, 
just as in human societies one group serves and ministers to another:

"The purpose for which any high priest is chosen from among his fellow-
men, and made a representative of men in their dealings with God, is to 
offer gifts and sacrifices in expiation of their sins. (Heb. 5:11)

The rest of his writing is at this link, scroll down to "The Sacrament of Holy Orders": http://www.ewtn.com/library/DOCTRINE/SACRAMEN.TXT

Scripture teaches us that Christ empowered the Apostles with his grace to preach and to teach and to heal and to forgive sins, all in His name.  They commissioned other men as priests ("presbyters") through laying on hands.  Since Christ is in Heaven bodily, he provides the grace for men to be His hands and feet on Earth.  All Christians are priests, but not in the full sense (ie, not in the pastoral sense).  We are priests to the extent that we all have direct access to the Father in Heaven and we are priests in the sense that we can offer our own sacrifices to Him.  Only a few men are called to be priests in the fullest, pastoral (ministerial), sense. And it is only they whom God has charged with certain duties (such as dispensing certain sacraments).

The priesthood (especially the papacy) is not a political or legal office, it is a liturgical (public ritual worship) office.  

Here is a document demonstrating how the Church is the fulfillment, transformation and perfection  of the Davidic Kingdom:  http://www.salvationhistory.com/documents/scripture/KingdomChurchInLukeActs.pdf .  The Church Christ founded is the Kingdom of Heaven or Kingdom of God.  Jesus covenanted to the Apostles rulership over this kingdom (Luke 22:29,30).  This means they had liturgical, moral, spiritual authority over all Christians.  They ordained (by laying on hands) their successors and those successors were called priests (the root word of priest is presbyter) and bishops (greek: episcopos).



Call no Man Father?:
http://www.davidmacd.com/catholic/priests_forgive_sins_call_no_man_father.htm

Going on Vocation:
http://zuserver2.star.ucl.ac.uk/~vgg/rc/aplgtc/hahn/m5/scmnt6.html


Church Fathers on Holy Orders:
http://www.cin.org/users/jgallegos/hlyord.htm

Church Fathers on Priesthood and Women (ie Deaconess: Yes;  Priestess: No):
http://www.cin.org/users/jgallegos/priest.htm

Catholic Encyclopedia:
http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/11279a.htm


------

Other Links:



Fulton Sheen: These are the Sacraments:
http://www.ewtn.com/library/DOCTRINE/SACRAMEN.TXT

Scott Hahn's Lectures on Sacraments:
http://zuserver2.star.ucl.ac.uk/~vgg/rc/aplgtc/hahn/m5/Mod5.html